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2005 Series -  June 21, 2005 Lecture 28 of 52  NEXT»

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OD


OD


OS

A 35-year-old male comes for an eye examination with no specific complaints.  He is found to have 20/20 vision in both eyes.  On dilated exam, he is found to have the following lesion.

1.  This most likely represents:   
 

a. malignant melanoma
b. disc edema
c. central retina vein occlusion (CRVO)
d.  melanocytoma

2.  The most likely cause of this lesion is:  
 

a. trauma
b. metastasis from the central nervous system
c. congenital abnormality of the pigmentation of the optic disc
d.  hemorrhage, likely venous

3.  Treatment of this lesion includes: 
 
a. enucleation
b. laser treatment
c. observation and serial measurements
d.  intravitreal steroids

For answers to the above, click here on or after June 28, 2005.


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